Want to get technical, I see.postpre wrote:Sean,
Abraham lived well before Jacob (later named Israel, from whom the 12 tribes sprang). Thus, the passages that you have pointed to to support the notion that the Body of Christ is Israel is not valid. Those verses in Galatians 3 are simply highlighting one aspect of God's promises to Abraham, that all the nations of the earth would be blessed through his seed. They say nothing about the Body of Christ now being identified as Israel. You are right to conclude that all can now partake in what was promised to Abraham (Jew and Gentile alike), but it is not correct to say that the Church is Israel.

Eph 2:11 Therefore remember that you, once Gentiles in the flesh—who are called Uncircumcision by what is called the Circumcision made in the flesh by hands— 12 that at that time you were without Christ, being aliens from the commonwealth of Israel and strangers from the covenants of promise, having no hope and without God in the world.
"You Gentiles" were once aliens from the commonwealth of Israel.
14 For He Himself is our peace, who has made both one, and has broken down the middle wall of separation,
He made both one. All you need to do is ask, both who?
19 Now, therefore, you are no longer strangers and foreigners, but fellow citizens with the saints and members of the household of God
I'm no longer a stranger or a foreigner of what? I'm now a fellow citizen of what? It's stated in verse 12. Are you denying this?
And just so we are clear, since being technical matters. That "one body" is the church:
Eph 2:16 that He might reconcile them both to God in one body through the cross
Eph 1:22 And He put all things under His feet, and gave Him to be head over all things to the church, 23 which is His body, the fullness of Him who fills all in all.
Col 1:18 And He is the head of the body, the church, who is the beginning, the firstborn from the dead, that in all things He may have the preeminence.
The church is the body. The one new man, the one body is the combination of believing Israel and Gentiles.
I still don't understand. If unfaithfulness to God during the time of the law of Moses was grounds for God to cast them out then how in the world can you claim its unconditional? Is your understanding of the word unconditional literal? If your view is correct then the law did annul the covenant with Abraham during that era. You seem to be putting conditions on something you call unconditional.postpre wrote: I'm not sure why the Amills keep getting this wrong. In the debate, Steve read Scripture that indicated that Isreal did not have rights to the land (under the law). But, this is exacty what Galatians 3 addresses. Contrary to popular opionion, the Law was not eternal. The Law couldn't give Israel the eternal rest that she sought. The permanent possession of the land could not be gained through adherence to the Law!
17 And this I say, that the law, which was four hundred and thirty years later, ,cannot annul the covenant that was confirmed before by God in Christ that it should make the promise of no effect. 18 For if [b]the inheritance [/b]is of the law, it is no longer of promise; but God gave it to Abraham by promise.
Notice, that the inheritiance is not of the law, it could not be fulfilled by the law. But, it was given to Abraham by promise. I take this that Abraham will be resurrected to receive this promised land in the Kingdom. How else could we interpret it?
Brian