Irrelevant? How could it be irrelevant? If Paul was preaching the "gospel" as it is preached today, wouldn't he have warned his hearers of hell?Paidion, I didn't take time to verify it but as I recall Jesus warned of hell more than anyone so Paul's failure to mention it is irrelevant to me.
Perhaps the reason he didn't mention it was that he preached the true gospel, that Jesus died to deliver man from his sins, rather than the later concept that He died to deliver man from hell.
You insist that kolasis means correction, not punishment. Where did you get this?
I get it chiefly from the meaning of its verbal form. "kolazO". Abott-Smith's Lexicon of the New Testament, states that this word originates from "kalos" (docked), and that it means
1. to curtail, dock, prune
2. to check, restrain,
3. to chastise, correct, punish.
The word "punish" is okay, if one holds the view that punishment is basically remedial. But if one's concept of "punish" is to "give a person what he deserves", then "punish" is not a suitable translation.
I would be interested in your references ---- where in Philo's and Josephus' works, would one find this?Both Philo and Josephus used it for punishment.
How does "fear has correction" make no sense, while "fear has punishment" does??????Aside from Jesus' use of the word in Matthew 25:46 the only other place it is used in the NT, 1 Jn. 4:18, it would not make sense to translate it correction rather than punishment.
I John 4:18 There is no fear in love, but perfect love casts out fear. For fear has correction, and he who fears is not perfected in love.
He who fears is not perfected in love. To be perfected in love, a person must be corrected. So "fear has correction" or perhaps today we would say "fear requires correction." This makes sense to me.
Rotherham translated the phrase in I John 4:25 as "fear hath correction."