Romans 7-8

[Guest]

Is it possible that Romans 7 and 8 are contrasting the personal effects of Christian living between someone under the Old covenent and someone under the New Covenent?

The Old covenant beliver desires to serve God and therefore has the heart cry of "I delight in the law of God after the inward man" but the law had no ability to empower the person to fufill the law.

Similarly Hebrews makes the contrast of the Old and New Covenants and says:
6:18 For there is verily a disannulling of the commandment going before for the weakness and unprofitableness thereof. 19For the law made nothing perfect, but the bringing in of a better hope did; by the which we draw nigh unto God.

Contrast another statment in Heb with Romans:

Heb 6:12
For the priesthood being changed, there is made of necessity a change also of the law.
Rom 8:2
For the law of the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus hath made me free from the law of sin and death.

Mabey because the priesthood is changed is why Rom 7 opens with the maraige analogy of being dead to moses and now married to Christ?

I won't go on, you can see how the reasoning would apply to other verses, I'm not sugesting that this any would give to sinless perfection.

Are there any thoughts on this?

Adam

[Guest]

Yes,
I see the possibility that Romans 7 is Paul speaking as if he's "Israel" in that passage, knowing the law but lacking the power to keep it. I think I heard N.T. Wright bring this point up. It's possible.