Trinity.

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Paidion
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Re: Trinity.

Post by Paidion » Sun Aug 17, 2014 6:45 pm

Homer wrote:What I think is that Jesus existed as The Word, being coetaneous (of equal age, duration, or period; coeval) with the Father. God was never without the Word, nor the Word without God. The Word become the Son (became flesh) at the time He was begotten in the virgin Mary and from that point forward will forever be the Son. I also believe God manifested Himself in the OT by the Word becoming the "Angel of the Lord". It must be admitted there is a degree of speculation in this so I do not hold these ideas as a test of who is a Christian and who is not, but certainly some ideas about who Jesus is are critical
Actually Homer, I agree with all of this except "The Word became the Son (became flesh) at the time He was begotten in the virgin Mary". My belief, as you know, is the the Word was always the Son, for He was begotten as the Son as the first act of God. So He was begotten twice, once as the divine Son, and once as a human being.

How do you understand "became the Son" as tantamount to "became flesh"? What you say sounds more and more like the position of the United Pentecostal Church. We occasionally attend one of their churches, and the pastor has affirmed that the Son did not exist until He was begotten in the womb of Mary. I understand that statement to mean that He didn't exist as the Son until then, but existed as God prior to that.
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Re: Trinity.

Post by Homer » Tue Aug 19, 2014 11:20 am

Hi Paidion,

Just noticed I hadn't responded to your question.

You asked:
How do you understand "became the Son" as tantamount to "became flesh"? What you say sounds more and more like the position of the United Pentecostal Church. We occasionally attend one of their churches, and the pastor has affirmed that the Son did not exist until He was begotten in the womb of Mary. I understand that statement to mean that He didn't exist as the Son until then, but existed as God prior to that.
I think John was explaining things in a way that we might understand, at least to a degree, something far above our heads. He chose "the Word", no doubt, as the most fitting description of the relation of Messiah to the Father prior to Jesus being begotten in the virgin Mary. Our thoughts, or ideas, are in the form of words. No idea, no words. So it would seem, in John's way of expression to us, that there never was a time God was in existence without the Word. And we see repeatedly that God spoke (by word) things into existence. Yet we are informed that "all things were made through Him and by Him" which I understand to be the Word (pre-incarnate Jesus). Certainly the Messiah existed prior to his conception in the virgin. But if we go beyond what John wrote it seems we are into speculation about the incomprehensible God.

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Trinity.

Post by darinhouston » Tue Aug 19, 2014 11:20 pm

We throw around words that have become so familiar in this context but lack sufficient clarity for such a divisive and fundamental question to orthodoxy.

What do you mean by "became"? What do you mean by "certainly the Messiah existed prior to his conception?" What does the "Word" mean to you? Was the Word a person prior to the birth of Jesus?

If Jesus was the Messiah, then in what sense did he preexist his own birth?

If I shed my tradition for the sake of argument/understanding/clarity, I'm afraid this sounds like virtual nonsense.

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Re: Trinity.

Post by Homer » Tue Aug 19, 2014 11:35 pm

Hi Darrin,

You wrote:
If I shed my tradition for the sake of argument/understanding/clarity, I'm afraid this sounds like virtual nonsense.
What does the "Word" mean to you? Was the Word a person prior to the birth of Jesus?
Well, now we have to first define "person". I definitely do not think He was another God.

What idea do you think John meant to convey when he chose (by inspiration, I think) to use the"word" in John 1? And then lot of folks think Jesus as Messiah is nonsense.

Be blessed

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Re: Trinity.

Post by darinhouston » Wed Aug 20, 2014 4:39 pm

No offense, but You first, Homer.


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Re: Trinity.

Post by Homer » Thu Aug 21, 2014 11:10 pm

Hi Darin,

Well, I guess I'm stuck, so I will give you my thinking, which is subject to revision :) . I will probably have more to say as the discussion (if there is any) proceeds.

You asked:
What does the "Word" mean to you? Was the Word a person prior to the birth of Jesus?

Yes, I believe the "Word" was and is a person. But then the question arises as to whether the "Word" was a separate "person", and if so, in what sense? A separate individual, as in another God? Even Trinitarian orthodoxy denies that. But looking at the controversial Text of John 1:

John 1:1-18, (NASB)

1. In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.


It can not be proven from this verse that Jesus is God, but neither can it be shown that He is not. The non-Trinitarian argues that the word theos ("God" ending the sentence in our translation) is anarthrous, i.e. lacking the article "the" as in "the God", thus Jesus is a separate divine being. But the lack of the article proves nothing. In verse 18b (see below) "No one has seen God" is also anarthrous, written by the same John. Also Paul does the same in Romans 8:33 where he writes "God is the one who justifies", with no article with theos. It is also said there are numerous places in the Septuagint where the Hebrew words El, Elohim, and Yahweh, all referring to God, lack the article in the Greek translation.

2. He was in the beginning with God.

We can not prove what form of existence Jesus had here, but we can know that He was there in the beginning

3. All things came into being through Him, and apart from Him nothing came into being that has come into being.

Seems clear here; the preposition dia (through) denotes cause by means of which an action passes to its accomplishment. The Word is creator, this idea is again stated in verse 10, "the world was made through (dia) Him".

That's all for tonight. To be continued, Lord willing...................

4. In Him was life, and the life was the Light of men. 5. The Light shines in the darkness, and the darkness did not comprehend it.
6. There came a man sent from God, whose name was John. 7. He came as a witness, to testify about the Light, so that all might believe through him. 8. He was not the Light, but he came to testify about the Light.
9. There was the true Light which, coming into the world, enlightens every man. 10. He was in the world, and the world was made through Him, and the world did not know Him. 11. He came to His own, and those who were His own did not receive Him. 12. But as many as received Him, to them He gave the right to become children of God, even to those who believe in His name, 13. who were born, not of blood nor of the will of the flesh nor of the will of man, but of God.
14. And the Word became flesh, and dwelt among us, and we saw His glory, glory as of the only begotten from the Father, full of grace and truth. 15. John *testified about Him and cried out, saying, “This was He of whom I said, ‘He who comes after me [m]has a higher rank than I, for He existed before me.’” 16. For of His fullness we have all received, and grace upon grace. 17. For the Law was given through Moses; grace and truth were realized through Jesus Christ. 18. No one has seen God at any time; the only begotten God who is in the bosom of the Father, He has explained Him.



Comments welcome!

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Re: Trinity.

Post by Paidion » Fri Aug 22, 2014 1:44 pm

Homer wrote:The non-Trinitarian argues that the word theos ("God" ending the sentence in our translation) is anarthrous, i.e. lacking the article "the" as in "the God", thus Jesus is a separate divine being. But the lack of the article proves nothing.
The lack of the article proves nothing? Not according to Martin Luther (who was a Trinitarian and a Greek scholar). Luther made this succinct comment:
The lack of an article is against Sabellianism; the word order is against Arianism.
Sabellianism was a form of Modalism. If John had been affirming that the Word was God Himself, he would have written:
και ο λογος ην ο θεος (and the word was the God)

Luther understood Arianism to be the belief that Jesus was a lesser, created god. If John had meant that, he would have written:
και ο λογος ην θεος (and the word was a god)
By the way, this is the way the New World Translation of Jehovah's Witnesses renders it.

But John actually wrote:
και θεος ην ο λογος (and the word was God-essence)

You are already aware that "θεος" lacks the article and comes before the verb "ην" (was). This form occurs elsewhere in the New Testament, showing that the lack of the article and reversed word order indicates essence. Here are two examples:

1John 4:8 ... ο θεος αγαπη εστιν (The God is love)
Notice that the word for "love" (αγαπη) lacks the article and comes before the verb for "is" (εστιν). So "love" is the kind of thing God IS.

John 17:17 ... ο λογος ο σος αληθεια εστιν (Your word is truth) or literally "The word, the one of you is truth")
Notice the word for "truth"(αληθεια) comes before the verb for "is" (εστιν). So "truth" (which may also be translated "reality") is the kind of thing God's word IS. (Jesus may be referring to Himself here as God's Word, for He said, "I am the truth.")

So in John 1:1 God-essence (that is, Deity) is the kind of the the Word WAS in the Beginning (and still IS).
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Re: Trinity.

Post by Homer » Fri Aug 22, 2014 2:15 pm

Hi Paidion,

You wrote:
So in John 1:1 God-essence (that is, Deity) is the kind of the the Word WAS in the Beginning (and still IS).
So if Jesus is the same kind of stuff as the father, He must be either God or another God. I'm a human, I begat two sons who are human, so there are three humans, no?

If asked earlier and did not get a reply: is the difference between God and the Son one of office, otherwise, being the same stuff they are two Gods or what?

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Re: Trinity.

Post by Paidion » Fri Aug 22, 2014 7:07 pm

Homer wrote:So if Jesus is the same kind of stuff as the father, He must be either God or another God. I'm a human, I begat two sons who are human, so there are three humans, no?
Yes, there are three humans. But there if we consider that we are all derived from Adam, you might say that there is only one Man. ("Adam" MEANS "Man")
If asked earlier and did not get a reply: is the difference between God and the Son one of office, otherwise, being the same stuff they are two Gods or what?
As I see it, They are two different divine Individuals, equally divine because the Father begat the Son of the same "stuff". Just as all of us are equally human with Adam. But we are not Adam. There was only one Adam.

So there is only one "true God" as Jesus affirmed in his prayer (John 17:3), but Jesus was and is equally divine with the Father, just as we are equally human with Adam. Man begets human beings, and God begat a divine Being, the only divine Being other than God Himself.
the apostle Paul wrote:... for us there is one God, the Father, from whom are all things and for whom we exist, and one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom are all things and through whom we exist. (1Cor 8:6 )
God, the Father, is the source of all things. Yet He created all things THROUGH His Son. They are equally divine, but they are not positionally equal. So I suppose one might say that they differ in office. But that is not the only difference. They are two different Individuals or Persons, yet hold the same thoughts and purposes and are exactly the same in character. This is not the case with children born from the same parents. The writer to the Hebrews affirms that the Son is the exact imprint of the Father's essence (Heb 1:3)

In the sense of there being "one God, the Father" in the quote from Corinthians above, Jesus is not God. But in the sense of Jesus being of the same essence as the Father, He may be called "God", as in John 1:18 "the only-begotten God".

In all discussions as to whether Jesus is God, all parties should be very clear in how they are using the word "God".
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Re: Trinity.

Post by darinhouston » Fri Aug 22, 2014 9:02 pm

I don't like just quoting big blocks of text, but I thought this excerpt was a particularly comprehensive treatment of the issue of the "logos" and is freely available.

From the Appendix of One God & One Lord: Reconsidering the Cornerstone of the Christian Faith by John A. Lynn, John W. Schoenheit, and Mark H. Graeser

http://thelivingtruthfellowship.org/jtl ... d-one-lord

1. It is imperative that the serious student of the Bible come to a basic understanding of logos, which is translated as “Word” in John 1:1. Most Trinitarians believe that the word logos refers directly to Jesus Christ, so in most versions of John logos is capitalized and translated “Word” (some versions even write “Christ” in John 1:1 - TLB & NLV). However, a study of the Greek word logos shows that it occurs more than 300 times in the New Testament, and in both the NIV and the KJV it is capitalized only 7 times (and even those versions disagree on exactly when to capitalize it). When a word that occurs more than 300 times is capitalized fewer than 10 times, it is obvious that when to capitalize and when not to capitalize is a translators’ decision based on their particular understanding of Scripture. As it is used throughout Scripture, logos has a very wide range of meanings along two basic lines of thought. One is the mind and products of the mind like “reason,” (thus “logic” is related to logos) and the other is the expression of that reason as a “word,” “saying,” “command” etc. The Bible itself demonstrates the wide range of meaning logos has, and some of the ways it is translated in Scripture are: account, appearance, book, command, conversation, eloquence, flattery, grievance, heard, instruction, matter, message, ministry, news, proposal, question, reason, reasonable, reply, report, rule, rumor, said, say, saying, sentence, speaker, speaking, speech, stories, story, talk, talking, teaching, testimony, thing, things, this, truths, what, why, word and words.

Any good Greek lexicon will also show this wide range of meaning (the words in bold are translated from logos):

• speaking; words you say (Rom. 15:18, “…what I have said and done”).
• a statement you make (Luke 20:20 - (NASB), “…they might catch Him in some statement…).
• a question (Matt. 21:24, “…I will also ask you one question…”).
• preaching (1 Tim. 5:17, “…especially those whose work is preaching and teaching).
• command (Gal. 5:14, “The entire law is summed up in a single command…”).
• proverb; saying (John 4:37, “Thus the saying, ‘One sows, and another reaps…’”).
• message; instruction; proclamation (Luke 4:32, “his message had authority”).
• assertion; declaration; teaching (John 6:60, “…This is a hard teaching…”).
• the subject under discussion; matter (Acts 8:21, “You have no part or share in this ministry….” Acts 15:6 (NASB), “And the apostles…came together to look into this matter”).
• revelation from God (Matt. 15:6, “…you nullify the word of God…”).
• God’s revelation spoken by His servants (Heb. 13:7, “…leaders, who spoke the word of God…”).
• a reckoning, an account (Matt. 12:36, “…men will have to give account” on the day of judgment…).
• an account or “matter” in a financial sense (Matt. 18:23, …a king who wanted to settle “accounts” with his servants. Phil. 4:15, “…the matter of giving and receiving…”).
• a reason; motive (Acts 10:29 - NASB), “…I ask for what reason you have sent for me”).17[


The above list is not exhaustive, but it does show that logos has a very wide range of meaning.With all the definitions and ways logos can be translated, how can we decide which meaning of logos to choose for any one verse? How can it be determined what the logos in John 1:1 is? Any occurrence of logos has to be carefully studied in its context in order to get the proper meaning. We assert that the logos in John 1:1 cannot be Jesus. Please notice that “Jesus Christ” is not a lexical definition of logos. This verse does not say, “In the beginning was Jesus.” “The Word” is not synonymous with Jesus, or even “the Messiah.” The word logos in John 1:1 refers to God’s creative self‑expression—His reason, purposes and plans, especially as they are brought into action. It refers to God’s self‑expression, or communication, of Himself. This has come to pass through His creation (Rom. 1:19 and 20), and especially the heavens (Ps. 19). It has come through the spoken word of the prophets and through Scripture, the written Word. Most notably and finally, it has come into being through His Son (Heb. 1:1 and 2).

The renowned Trinitarian scholar, John Lightfoot, writes:
The word logos then, denoting both “reason” and “speech,” was a philosophical term adopted by Alexandrian Judaism before St. Paul wrote, to express the manifestation of the Unseen God in the creation and government of the World. It included all modes by which God makes Himself known to man. As His reason, it denoted His purpose or design; as His speech, it implied His revelation. Christian teachers, when they adopted this term, exalted and fixed its meaning by attaching to it two precise and definite ideas: (1) “The Word is a Divine Person,” (2) “The Word became incarnate in Jesus Christ.” It is obvious that these two propositions must have altered materially the significance of all the subordinate terms connected with the idea of the logos. 18
It is important to note that it was “Christian teachers” who attached the idea of a “divine person” to the word logos. It is certainly true that when the word logos came to be understood as being Jesus Christ, the understanding of John 1:1 was altered substantially. Lightfoot correctly understands that the early meaning of logos concerned reason and speech, not “Jesus Christ.” Norton develops the concept of logos as “reason” and writes:

There is no word in English answering to the Greek word logos, as used here [in John 1:1]. It was employed to denote a mode of conception concerning the Deity, familiar at the time when St. John wrote and intimately blended with the philosophy of his age, but long since obsolete, and so foreign from our habits of thinking that it is not easy for us to conform our minds to its apprehension. The Greek word logos, in one of its primary senses, answered nearly to our word Reason. The logos of God was regarded, not in its strictest sense, as merely the Reason of God; but, under certain aspects, as the Wisdom, the Mind, the Intellect of God (p. 307). Norton postulates that perhaps “the power of God” would be a good translation for logos (p. 323). Buzzard sets forth “plan,” “purpose” or “promise” as three acceptable translations. Broughton and Southgate say “thoughts, plan or purpose of God, particularly in action.” Many scholars identify logos with God’s wisdom and reason.

The logos is the expression of God, and is His communication of Himself, just as a “word” is an outward expression of a person’s thoughts. This outward expression of God has now occurred through His Son, and thus it is perfectly understandable why Jesus is called the “Word.” Jesus is an outward expression of God’s reason, wisdom, purpose and plan. For the same reason, we call revelation “a word from God” and the Bible “the Word of God.”

If we understand that the logos is God’s expression—His plan, purposes, reason and wisdom, it is clear that they were indeed with Him “in the beginning.” Scripture says that God’s wisdom was “from the beginning” (Prov. 8:23). It was very common in Hebrew writing to personify a concept such as wisdom. No ancient Jew reading Proverbs would think that God’s wisdom was a separate person, even though it is portrayed as one in verses like Proverbs 8:29 and 30: “…when He marked out the foundations of the earth…I [wisdom] was the craftsman at his side….”

2. Most Jewish readers of the gospel of John would have been familiar with the concept of God’s “word” being with God as He worked to bring His creation into existence. There is an obvious working of God’s power in Genesis 1 as He brings His plan into concretion by speaking things into being. The Targums are well known for describing the wisdom and action of God as His “word.” This is especially important to note because the Targums are the Aramaic translations and paraphrases of the Old Testament, and Aramaic was the spoken language of many Jews at the time of Christ. Remembering that a Targum is usually a paraphrase of what the Hebrew text says, note how the following examples attribute action to the word:

• And the word of the LORD was Joseph’s helper (Gen. 39:2).
• And Moses brought the people to meet the word of the LORD (Exod. 19:17).
• And the word of the LORD accepted the face of Job (Job 42:9).
• And the word of the Lord shall laugh them to scorn (Ps. 2:4).
• They believed in the name of His word (Ps. 106:12).19


The above examples demonstrate that the Jews were familiar with the idea of God’s Word referring to His wisdom and action. This is especially important to note because these Jews were fiercely monotheistic, and did not in any way believe in a “Triune God.” They were familiar with the idioms of their own language, and understood that the wisdom and power of God were being personified as “word.”

The Greek‑speaking Jews were also familiar with God’s creative force being called “the word.” J. H. Bernard writes, “When we turn from Palestine to Alexandria [Egypt], from Hebrew sapiential [wisdom] literature to that which was written in Greek, we find this creative wisdom identified with the Divine logos, Hebraism and Hellenism thus coming into contact.”20 One example of this is in the Apocryphal book known as the Wisdom of Solomon, which says, “O God of my fathers and Lord of mercy who hast made all things by thy word (logos), and by thy wisdom hast formed man…” (9:1 and 2). In this verse, the “word” and “wisdom” are seen as the creative force of God, but without being a “person.”

3. The logos, that is, the plan, purpose and wisdom of God, “became flesh” (came into concretion or physical existence) in Jesus Christ. Jesus is the “…image of the invisible God…” (Col. 1:15) and His chief emissary, representative and agent. Because Jesus perfectly obeyed the Father, he represents everything that God could communicate about Himself in a human person. As such, Jesus could say, If you have seen me, you have seen the Father (John 14:9). The fact that the logos “became” flesh shows that it did not exist that way before. There is no pre‑existence for Jesus in this verse other than his figurative “existence” as the plan, purpose or wisdom of God for the salvation of man. The same is true with the “word” in writing. It had no literal pre‑existence as a “spirit‑book” somewhere in eternity past, but it came into being as God gave the revelation to people and they wrote it down.

4. The last phrase in the verse, which most versions translate as “and the Word was God,” should not be translated that way. The Greek language uses the word “God” (Greek = theos) to refer to the Father as well as to other authorities. These include the Devil (2 Cor. 4:4), lesser gods (1 Cor. 8:5) and men with great authority (John 10:34 and 35; Acts 12:22). At the time the New Testament was written, Greek manuscripts were written in all capital letters. The upper and lower case letters were not blended as we do today. Thus, the distinction that we today make between “God” and “god” could not be made, and the context became the judge in determining to whom “THEOS ” referred. Although context is the final arbiter, it is almost always the case in the New Testament that when “God” refers to the Father, the definite article appears in the Greek text (this article can be seen only in the Greek text, it is never translated into English). Translators are normally very sensitive to this (see John 10:33 below). The difference between theos with and without the article occurs in John 1:1: “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with “the theos,” and the Word was “theos.” Since the definite article is missing from the second occurrence of “theos” (“God,”) the usual meaning would be “god” or “divine.” The New English Bible gets the sense of this phrase by translating it, “What God was, the Word was.” James Moffatt who was a professor of Greek and New Testament Exegesis at Mansfield College in Oxford, England, and author of the well‑known Moffatt Bible, translated the phrase, “the logos was divine.”

A very clear explanation of how to translate theos without the definite article can be found in Jesus As They Knew Him, by William Barclay, a professor at Trinity College in Glasgow: In a case like this we cannot do other than go to the Greek, which is theos en ho logos. Ho is the definite article, the, and it can be seen that there is a definite article with logos, but not with theos. When in Greek two nouns are joined by the verb “to be,” and when both have the definite article, then the one is fully intended to be identified with the other; but when one of them is without the article, it becomes more an adjective than a noun, and describes rather the class or sphere to which the other belongs.

An illustration from English will make this clear. If I say, “The preacher is the man,” I use the definite article before both preacher and man, and I thereby identify the preacher with some quite definite individual man whom I have in mind. But, if I say, “The preacher is man,” I have omitted the definite article before man, and what I mean is that the preacher must be classified as a man, he is in the sphere of manhood, he is a human being.

[In the last clause of John 1:1] John has no article before theos, God. The logos, therefore, is not identified as God or with God; the word theos has become adjectival and describes the sphere to which the logos belongs. We would, therefore, have to say that this means that the logos belongs to the same sphere as God; without being identified with God, the logos has the same kind of life and being as God. Here the NEB [New English Bible] finds the perfect translation: “What God was, the Word was.”21

5. It is important to understand that the Bible was not written in a vacuum, but was recorded in the context of a culture and was understood by those who lived in that culture. Sometimes verses that seem superfluous or confusing to us were meaningful to the readers of the time because they were well aware of the culture and beliefs being propounded by those around them. In the first century, there were many competing beliefs in the world (and unfortunately, erroneous beliefs in Christendom) that were confusing believers about the identities of God and Christ. For centuries before Christ, and at the time the New Testament was written, the irrational beliefs about the gods of Greece had been handed down. This body of religious information was known by the word “muthos,” which we today call “myths” or “mythology.” This muthos, these myths, were often irrational, mystical and beyond understanding or explanation. The more familiar one is with the Greek myths, the better he will understand our emphasis on their irrationality. If one is unfamiliar with them, it would be valuable to read a little on the subject. Greek mythology is an important part of the cultural background of the New Testament.

The myths were often incomprehensible, but nevertheless, they had been widely accepted as the “revelation of the gods.” The pervasiveness of the muthos in the Greco‑Roman world of the New Testament can be seen sticking up out of the New Testament like the tip of an iceberg above the water. When Paul and Barnabas healed a cripple in Lystra, the people assumed that the gods had come down in human form, and the priest of Zeus came to offer sacrifices to them. While Paul was in Athens, he became disturbed because of the large number of idols there that were statues to the various gods. In Ephesus, Paul’s teaching actually started a riot. When some of the locals realized that if his doctrine spread, “…the temple of the great goddess Artemis will be discredited, and the goddess herself, who is worshiped throughout the province of Asia and the world, will be robbed of her divine majesty” (Acts 19:27). There are many other examples that show that there was a muthos, i.e., a body of religious knowledge that was in large part incomprehensible to the human mind, firmly established in the minds of some of the common people in New Testament times.

Starting several centuries before Christ, certain Greek philosophers worked to replace the muthos with what they called the logos, a reasonable and rational explanation of reality. It is appropriate that, in the writing of the New Testament, God used the word logos, not muthos, to describe His wisdom, reason and plan. God has not come to us in mystical experiences and irrational beliefs that cannot be understood; rather, He reveals Himself in ways that can be rationally understood and persuasively argued.

6. In addition to the cultural context that accepted the myths, at the time John was written, a belief system called Gnosticism was taking root in Christianity. Gnosticism had many ideas and words that are strange and confusing to us today, so, at the risk of oversimplifying, we will describe a few basic tenets of Gnosticism as simply as we can.

Gnosticism took many forms, but generally Gnostics taught that there was a supreme and unknowable Being, which they designated as the “Monad.” The Monad produced various gods, who in turn produced other gods (these gods were called by different names, in part because of their power or position). One of these gods, called the “Demiurge,” created the earth and then ruled over it as an angry, evil and jealous god. This evil god, Gnostics believed, was the god of the Old Testament, called Elohim. The Monad sent another god, “Christ,” to bring special gnosis (knowledge) to mankind and free them from the influence of the evil Elohim. Thus, a Gnostic Christian would agree that Elohim created the heavens and earth, but he would not agree that He was the supreme God. Most Gnostics would also state that Elohim and Christ were at cross‑purposes with each other. This is why it was so important for John 1:1 to say that the logos was with God, which at first glance seems to be a totally unnecessary statement.

The opening of the gospel of John is a wonderful expression of God’s love. God “…wants all men to be saved and to come to a knowledge of the truth” (1 Tim. 2:4). He authored the opening of John in such a way that it reveals the truth about Him and His plan for all of mankind and, at the same time, refutes Gnostic teaching. It says that from the beginning there was the logos (the reason, plan, power), which was with God. There was not another “god” existing with God, especially not a god opposed to God. Furthermore, God’s plan was like God; it was divine. God’s plan became flesh when God impregnated Mary.

7. There are elements of John 1:1 and other phrases in the introduction of John that not only refer back in time to God’s work in the original creation, but also foreshadow the work of Christ in the new administration and the new creation. Noted Bible commentator F. F. Bruce argues for this interpretation:

It is not by accident that the Gospel begins with the same phrase as the book of Genesis. In Genesis 1:1, ‘In the beginning’ introduces the story of the old creation; here it introduces the story of the new creation. In both works of creation the agent is the Word of God.22 The Racovian Catechism, one of the great doctrinal works of the Unitarian movement of the 14th and 15th centuries, states that the word “beginning” in John 1:1 refers to the beginning of the new dispensation and thus is similar to Mark 1:1, which starts, “The beginning of the gospel about Jesus Christ….”

In the cited passage (John 1:1) wherein the Word is said to have been in the beginning, there is no reference to an antecedent eternity, without commencement; because mention is made here of a beginning, which is opposed to that eternity. But the word beginning, used absolutely, is to be understood of the subject matter under consideration. Thus, Daniel 8:1 (ASV), “In the third year of the reign of king Belshazzar a vision appeared to me, even unto me, Daniel, after that which appeared unto me at the first.” John 15:27 (ASV), “And ye also shall bear witness because ye have been with me from the beginning.” John 16:4, “…these things I said not unto you from the beginning because I was with you. And Acts 11:15 (ASV), “And as I began to speak, the Holy Spirit fell on them, even as on us at the beginning.” As then the matter of which John is treating is the gospel, or the things transacted under the gospel, nothing else ought to be understood here beside the beginning of the gospel; a matter clearly known to the Christians whom he addressed, namely, the advent and preaching of John the Baptist, according to the testimony of all the evangelists [i.e., Matthew, Mark, Luke and John], each of whom begins his history with the coming and preaching of the Baptist. Mark indeed (Chapter 1:1) expressly states that this was the beginning of the gospel. In like manner, John himself employs the word beginning, placed thus absolutely, in the introduction to his First Epistle, at which beginning he uses the same term (logos) Word, as if he meant to be his own interpreter [“That which is from the beginning…concerning the Word (logos) of life.” 1 John 1:1].23 While we do not agree with the Catechism that the only meaning of beginning in John 1:1 is the beginning of the new creation, we certainly see how the word beginning is a double entendre. In the context of the new creation, then, “the Word” is the plan or purpose according to which God is restoring His creation.

8. To fully understand any passage of Scripture, it is imperative to study the context. To fully understand John 1:1, the rest of the chapter needs to be understood as well, and the rest of the chapter adds more understanding to John 1:1. We believe that these notes on John 1:1, read together with the rest of John 1 and our notes on John 1:3, 10, 14a, 15, and 18 will help make the entire first chapter of John more understandable.

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