If there is to be no millineum.......

End Times
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_AARONDISNEY
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Post by _AARONDISNEY » Sun May 21, 2006 12:17 pm

Thank you Ely
You have answered alot of questions I was wondering about concerning the lost tribes. The Amil position is that we interpret the Bible with itself, which of course is the correct position, and you have done a fantastic job of proving that the northern tribes have not disappeard utilizing the Bible itself.
Keep the replies coming Ely!! I can't answer a lot of these legitimate concerns against the dispensational position, but I love to see you doing it. I'll be caddy to your dispensational Tiger Woods, if that's cool :wink: !

Exchanges like these are fantastic for learning the holes in each of our conclusions. It also helps us to try to fill those holes in.

I'll be eagerly awaiting more posts on here from both sides.

Aaron
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Post by _Ely » Sun May 21, 2006 1:06 pm

Thank you Ely
You have answered alot of questions I was wondering about concerning the lost tribes. The Amil position is that we interpret the Bible with itself, which of course is the correct position, and you have done a fantastic job of proving that the northern tribes have not disappeard utilizing the Bible itself.

Keep the replies coming Ely!! I can't answer a lot of these legitimate concerns against the dispensational position, but I love to see you doing it. I'll be caddy to your dispensational Tiger Woods, if that's cool !

Exchanges like these are fantastic for learning the holes in each of our conclusions. It also helps us to try to fill those holes in.

I'll be eagerly awaiting more posts on here from both sides.

Aaron
I agre fully with you (apart form the tiger woods'/caddy thing!). Like you, there's plenty of issues that I simply don't have any answer for right now. I don't even pretend to be able to fully understand premillennialism or amillennialism. But you're right, exchanges like this are good to bring up things to go away and research and ponder over. It also helps us to get more familiar with our Bibles - which can only be a good thing. :)
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Post by _AARONDISNEY » Sun May 21, 2006 2:31 pm

Another thing that's interesting is that the preterist position (from what I understand) takes the 12 tribes of Israel in Revelation literally (even if not the 144,000 number), and so if 9 or 10 tribes are missing that doesn't jive real well with their interpretation.

I don't want to misrepresent the preterists on this, but from listening to Steve's Revelation lecture I'm pretty sure he said that a complete number (what the number 12,000 symbolized) of people from each tribe escaped the trouble that surrounded Israel at that time because of their faith in Christ. If I am misrepresenting the preterist, please correct me.
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Post by _Mort_Coyle » Sun May 21, 2006 8:53 pm

Mort – both amills and premills (and mills of all shapes and sizes!) have ‘pre-conceived’ notions which we bring to texts. There’s no point in trying to make out that premills are unique in this aspect. As I said before, what needs to be decided is whether premill pre-suppositions or amill pre-suppositions are the valid ones.
I can agree with this. Every person’s viewpoint comes from a viewpoint and is influenced by many factors. This is why I tend to take umbrage when pre-mills make the assertion that they are only taking the scripture literally – at face value – when in fact they have to spiritualize it as much as anyone else. And spiritualizing isn't necessarily a bad thing. Prophetic language is highly symbolic, hyperbolic, apocalyptic and spiritual. Oftentimes trying to literalize an obviously symbolic text leads to ridiculous interpretations.

As far as pre-suppositions go, I think the amills have a much simpler set. Among them are that scripture must be exegeted with regard to it’s historical & cultural context, genre, etc. My eschatological framework is that the kingdom is a continuum from the Incarnation which will someday be fully manifest on earth; that Jesus will return someday to stay; and that immediately following His return will be the resurrection, judgment and eternal life. It seems that the pre-mill framework is exceedingly complex (let me break out my Clarence Larkin charts), involving multiple returns of Jesus, a temple being rebuilt then destroyed then rebuilt, a millennium where Jesus reigns on earth yet somehow is unable to stop a rebellion from occurring, a floating cubed city, a reinstitution of animal sacrifices for no particularly good reason, a different plan of salvation for Jews vs. Gentiles, etc., etc. The pre-mill approach to scripture seems to be much more cavalier about stringing scriptures together to fit the pre-supposition without regard to their historical/cultural context, genre, traditional interpretation, etc.
… are you saying that the church is the tabernacle of David? Is it also the tabernacle of MOses, the tempe of Solomon, the restored temple and Jesus - all combined? If so, was there a similar relationship between God's other dewlling places. Did Herod's temple = the tabernacle of Moses, tabernacle of David, Solomon's temple all combined? Finally, when did Jesus actually "become" the temple?
The tabernacle of David was a “type and shadow” of the true temple, which is spiritual, not physical. The various tabernacles/temples are not the same except in terms of what they represented; which was the place where God dwelt among men. Jesus is the fulfillment of the “type and shadow” of the tabernacle/temple. The church, as the body of Christ now becomes the manifestation both of Christ’s kingdom (rule & reign) on earth and His dwelling place on earth. I’m not aware of a scripture that tells us specifically when Jesus “became” the temple, but I suppose it would have occurred at His birth. As John says, “The Word became flesh and made His dwelling among us.”

Of course, after His resurrection He ascended. As the writer of Hebrews says:
The point of what we are saying is this: We do have such a high priest, who sat down at the right hand of the throne of the Majesty in heaven, and who serves in the sanctuary, the true tabernacle set up by the Lord, not by man. (8:1-2)
The writer of Hebrews goes on to say:
Every high priest is appointed to offer both gifts and sacrifices, and so it was necessary for this one also to have something to offer. If he were on earth, he would not be a priest, for there are already men who offer the gifts prescribed by the law. They serve at a sanctuary that is a copy and shadow of what is in heaven. This is why Moses was warned when he was about to build the tabernacle: "See to it that you make everything according to the pattern shown you on the mountain." But the ministry Jesus has received is as superior to theirs as the covenant of which he is mediator is superior to the old one, and it is founded on better promises.
For if there had been nothing wrong with that first covenant, no place would have been sought for another. But God found fault with the people and said:
"The time is coming, declares the Lord,
when I will make a new covenant
with the house of Israel
and with the house of Judah.
It will not be like the covenant
I made with their forefathers
when I took them by the hand
to lead them out of Egypt,
because they did not remain faithful to my covenant,
and I turned away from them, declares the Lord.
This is the covenant I will make with the house of Israel
after that time, declares the Lord.
I will put my laws in their minds
and write them on their hearts.
I will be their God,
and they will be my people.
No longer will a man teach his neighbor,
or a man his brother, saying, 'Know the Lord,'
because they will all know me,
from the least of them to the greatest.
For I will forgive their wickedness
and will remember their sins no more."[c]

By calling this covenant "new," he has made the first one obsolete; and what is obsolete and aging will soon disappear.
In light of this, why on earth would you want to see another man-made temple built?
This is an example of you imposing your pre-suppositions onto the text. Your pre-supposition seems to be that God definitely doesn’t plan on building any kind of physical temple. So you go to Old Testament prophecies of a temple say that it is really referring to the church. You may have some grounds for doing this elsewhere in the NT, but not here. It’s best not to put words into Peter's mouth. Did he say that the day of Pentecost was a fulfilment of Ezekiel 43? No. What he did say was that the day of Pentecost was "that which was spoken by the prophet Joel.” It’s actually an example of a prophecy being literally fulfilled.
Calm down there cowboy, I didn’t put any words into Peter’s mouth. I didn’t claim that Peter referenced Ezekiel 43. I said (in so many words) that the Pentecost story seems to recast Ezekiel 43 as the manifest presence of God coming to the believers rather than the temple. This is not a view that is specific to amillennialism, btw.

Since you brought up what Peter did say about Joel’s prophecy being fulfilled, I take it that you agree with Peter that the “last days” were in 1 A.D.

I am curious about something else. You stated that Pentecost was “…actually an example of a prophecy being literally fulfilled”, yet in the narrative of Acts 2 I don’t see any mention of the sun being turned to darkness or the moon to blood. Was Peter spiritualizing Joel’s prophecy?
you are assuming that i swhat he meant. James didn’t say that the scripture was being fulfilled. Look again at what he said: “14 Simon has declared how God at the first visited the Gentiles to take out of them a people for His name. 15 And with this the words of the prophets agree, just as it is written.” He didn’t say it is "fulfilled", he said that it agreed with Amos' words. Like I said, James words do not force us to conclude that Amos’ prophecy was being or had been fulfilled.
Ok, I think we’re quibbling about semantics here, but since you don’t like fulfilled, how about applied. Would you agree that James applied Amos’ prophecy to the Gentile situation? Or did James just, in the middle of the discussion, suddenly go off on a tangent about something that wouldn’t have any relevance for thousands of years?
Again, let me say that my view is that James was identifying the “tabernacle of David” as referring to the throne of David - the Kingdom which Jesus will restore to Israel when He returns.
So you are equating David’s tabernacle with David’s throne? On what basis are you doing that? The tabernacle is, historically and functionally, completely different from the throne. Jesus restored the Kingdom at His incarnation. That’s all through Matthew’s Gospel. It seems like you’re trying to spiritualize the tabernacle of David into being the throne of David.
You seem to be placing quite alot of emphasis on the idea that the tribes of Israel have ceased to to exist and have actually "disappeared from the face of the planet".
Not placing a lot of emphasis, but it is a problem one must confront if they’re going to place a lot of emphasis on a future fulfillment of Amos 9.
Jesus does speak of the house of Israel as having been ‘lost’ :shock: .
Are you equating the “lost sheep of Israel” that Jesus spoke of to the “lost tribes of Israel”? That’s a novel approach and one I’ve never seen before. I know the two phrases sound similar, but… If Jesus intent was to save the lost tribes and He sent the disciples out to the lost tribes then it appears to have been a miserable failure, since according to all credible historical sources the lost tribes are still lost.
You might point out that Judah and Benjamin had been in the southern Kingdom, not the northern kingdom. True. but we also know that the Levites had not "disappeared from the face of the planet" because various people (like Zacharias, John the Baptist and Barnabus) are identified as Levites in the NT. So, we've only got another 9 tribes to 'discover'.
The Levites were spread throughout Israel/Judah because they had no land of their own. Technically, there were 14 tribes:

Reuben, Simeon, Levi, Judah, Issachar, Zebulun, Benjamin, Dan, Naphtali, Gad, Asher, Joseph, Ephraim and Manasseh.

Which ones get included as the "Twelve Tribes" varies from place to place in scripture. Revelation 7:5-8 lists the 12 tribes as: Judah, Reuben, Gad, Asher, Naphtali, Manasseh, Simeon, Levi, Issachar, Zebulun, Joseph and Benjamin. What's strange about this is that it's the first time Joseph is listed as a tribe along with his son Manasseh. Ephraim is not listed. Reuben is listed, but not Dan. Maybe Steve has some insight into why this is. Obviously, what's more important than the tribes themselves is what the tribes represent.
think the death-knell to the lost tribes of ISrael idea can be applied by James. He writes his epistle to “the Twelve Tribes who are in the dispersion” (James 1:1 YLT). This is critical. Why write to all twelve tribes if ten of them had long-previously ceased to exist? And how would the readers be able to identify themselves as part of the twelve tribes? Or are you going to suggest he was referring to Christians from all nations (replacement theology)?
I'll go for replacement theology. Although I prefer to call it "olive branch" theology (Rom 11:17-24).
So, God clearly promised to take Isralites from out of their dispersion and to join them once again with their brethren from the southern Kingdom under one King. Again, if the 10 tribes were going to disappear and cease to exist, why did He make such promises?
But He has done this. The one King is Jesus. The Israel is the “true Israel” which is comprised of Jews and Gentiles. What Jesus said to the old ethnic Israel is this: "... the kingdom of God will be taken away from you and given to a nation producing the fruits of it" (Matt 21:43).
If they were not lost then, we have no reason to think they are lost now. Thus, we are indeed justified in understanding Amos’ prophecy literally While the Jews of today might not be able to identify which tribe they are from (aside from the Levites), God knows who they are.
Actually we have plenty of reason to think they are lost now, unless one wishes to disregard history. Go find me a Danite or an Asherite or a Naphtali-ite. You seem to be saying that they do exist, it’s just that there’s no way to quantify it. In that case, I only need to believe that they do exist if my interpretation of prophecy requires it. Otherwise I have no need to make such an assertion which can never be proven.

So far, of the three scripture references Aaron has provided to “prove” that the creation of the nation of Israel in 1948 was ordained by God, two very clearly were fulfilled in ancient times and the third has turned into a convoluted mess entailing reconstituted (but undetectable) lost tribes.

Surely there must be something more solid than this?
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Post by _Ely » Mon May 22, 2006 12:45 pm

Senor Coyle, it’s good talking to you. I wish I had someone like you in our church then we could sit down in person every week and 'wrangle' over these things. Everyone in my church is either dispensationalist or doesn’t really care – that’s why I like coming onto forums like these to get an alternative angle on things.

You gave a characterisation (or ‘caricature’ perhaps?) of the premill position. Let me state that I not a traditional dispensationalist. I see a ’m anticipating a Post-Trib rapture. This means that I’m looking for one return of Christ to gather His saints to Himself and to destroy those armies which will be gathered around Jerusalem. I also don’t subscribe to this "parenthesis" idea that God is not dealing with Israel now. I believe that every believing person in all history whether Jew or Gentile has been a de-facto member of the church – the called-out people of God. Thus, believing Jews have always been part of the church.

Thanks for your thoughts on 'the tabernacle of David'. Just to clarify a bit more. You quoted the writer of Hebrews where he says “We do have such a high priest, who sat down at the right hand of the throne of the Majesty in heaven, and who serves in the sanctuary, the true tabernacle set up by the Lord, not by man.” (8:1-2)

He seems to saying that heaven is the true tabernacle set up by the Lord. But then passages such as 2 Corinthians 6:16 say that the church (or more specifically local churches) are the temple of the living God.” (cf. 1 Corinthians 3:16-17). So which is the true dwelling place of God, heaven or local churches?

I am curious about something else. You stated that Pentecost was “…actually an example of a prophecy being literally fulfilled”, yet in the narrative of Acts 2 I don’t see any mention of the sun being turned to darkness or the moon to blood. Was Peter spiritualizing Joel’s prophecy?


I knew you’d ask about that! Peter was not ‘spiritualizing’ Joel’s prophecy, if by ‘spirititualizing’, we mean bypassing it’s literal meaning and introducing a new, symbolic meaning. Peter was saying that the Spirit had indeed been poured out as per Joel’s prophecy. With regard to the cosmic disturbances, he wasn’t spiritualising them to suggest that they were actually taking pace there and then. I understand him to have been saying that this prophecy was bang on track and that before the coming of the “great and awesome day of the LORD”, the cosmic signs would indeed also take place. I know from Matthew 24:29-31 that the cosmic signs will not take place until after the great tribulation and before the Parousia of Jesus Christ.

Now, this might sound like I’m forcing my premill pre-suppositions onto the text. Maybe I’m making Peter “just, in the middle of the discussion, suddenly go off on a tangent about something that wouldn’t have any relevance for thousands of years.” But let me ask, how do you understand this prophecy? Was Peter saying that all of the things which Joel spoke of were at that time being fulfilled? If so, what do understand the cosmic signs to be referring to? And what connection do these signs have with the destruction of Jerusalem which was 40-odd years in the future?

Ok, I think we’re quibbling about semantics here, but since you don’t like fulfilled, how about applied. Would you agree that James applied Amos’ prophecy to the Gentile situation?
That’s how I understand it. I’ve explained that James was saying that the future situation ‘agreed’ with the present (to them) situation. Actually, the fact that he begins the quote with ‘after this’ may lend more weight to my understanding. He may have been saying that ‘after’ a time where God will take a people out of the Gentiles for His name, He would return and rebuild the tabernacle of David at which time, the Gentiles would be worshipping the LORD. Maybe.

So you are equating David’s tabernacle with David’s throne? On what basis are you doing that? The tabernacle is, historically and functionally, completely different from the throne. Jesus restored the Kingdom at His incarnation. That’s all through Matthew’s Gospel. It seems like you’re trying to spiritualize the tabernacle of David into being the throne of David.
Actually, I believe I have a scriptural basis for connecting the ‘tabernacle of David’ with David’s throne. The actual, physical tent which David built was never referred to in the scriptures as the ‘tabernacle of David’. The only other time that the actual term ‘the tabernacle of David’ is used in the scriptures (aside from Amos and Acts 15) is in Isaiah:

5 In mercy the throne will be established;
And One will sit on it in truth, in the tabernacle of David
,
Judging and seeking justice and hastening righteousness.”
Isaiah 16:5

The Septuagint uses the same Greek word for tabernacle (“skene”) as it does in Amos 9:11, which in turn James seemed to quote from in Acts 15. I’ve been a bit lazy and I haven’t fully checked out the context of the verse to see when this prophecy was/will be fulfilled. But I just want to note the simple fact that Isaiah makes a clear connection between the “tabernacle of David” and a the reign of a King. I guess the next question must be “who” is this King and when did/will this king rule? My hunch is that the king is Jesus, which then comes back to the “now” and “not yet” Kingdom issue.


Regarding the notion of the lost tribes of Israel, there’s not really much more I can say. Not only is this idea not found in the scriptures, but also the scriptures clearly testify against this idea. Sorry to say Mort, it appears that because of your ‘replacement theology’ (let’s call a spade a spade shall we!) position, you would rather believe that the northern tribes had been ‘lost’ by the time of Jesus. This is because it adds more credence to the idea that they were replaced by the ‘true Israel’. Maybe we should call it ‘misplacement theology.’

Just one final thing, when did I say anything about 1948? I am not a Christian Zionist. I am not one of those who say that Christians must do everything we can to keep Israel in the land. IMO, it is the LORD of hosts who Himself will plant Israel into the land, never to return. He does not need to help of man.

In love,
Ely
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Post by _Mort_Coyle » Mon May 22, 2006 5:25 pm

Hi Ely,

Thanks for your well-reasoned reply. I too love being able to sit with another thoughful believer and "wrangle" over theology and doctrine. Iron sharpens iron and all that. It's unfortunate that so many people respond to doctrinal disagreements by becoming offended. I have some good friends who are hardcore Dispensationalists and we thoroughly enjoy a spirited debate now and then (preferably supplemented with Guinness). Sadly, I've lost other friends who would rather cease fellowship than live with the tension of differing viewpoints.

It's helpful to know where you stand. I had assumed that you were a "pre-tribber". I think Aaron may have assumed that also. My own journey was from Futurist/Pre-Trib to Futurist/Post-Trib to Historicist to Preterist. I don't recall where along the way I adopted amillennialism, but it was fairly early (long before becoming a Preterist).

On to the point-counterpoint!
I believe that every believing person in all history whether Jew or Gentile has been a de-facto member of the church – the called-out people of God. Thus, believing Jews have always been part of the church.
I wholeheartedly agree with this.
So which is the true dwelling place of God, heaven or local churches?
The answer is yes. I think think this is a case of both/and instead of either/or. Jesus is in heaven, seated at the right hand of the Father but He is also present here, particularly in the ekklesia.
I knew you’d ask about that! Peter was not ‘spiritualizing’ Joel’s prophecy, if by ‘spirititualizing’, we mean bypassing it’s literal meaning and introducing a new, symbolic meaning.
Hmmm. I don't agree with your definition of "spiritualizing". I don't think of spiritualizing as bypassing the literal meaning and introducing a new, symbolic meaning. Rather, I think it's understanding that it originally had a symbolic meaning (which the original hearers understood to be such) and not trying to impose a literal interpretation onto it (which, strangely enough, often leads to re-spiritualizing the text; so that locusts become helicopter gunships, etc.).

For example, the prophets often used animal imagery to depict nations. They often used celestial imagery (stars, sun, moon, etc.) to depict leaders and governments. A government being conquered is likened to a star falling from the sky (Isaiah 13 & 14 for example - and no, I don't think it's about Satan). The ancient semitic peoples were very dramatic and symbolic in their language, unlike the later Greeks who tended to be more exact and abstract in their thinking and language.

For example, ancient people had observed lunar eclipses but had no scientific language to explain the phenomena. It was probably fascinating and terrifying to see the "sun turn dark" and the "moon turn to blood". We understand that a "falling star" is just a meteor, but to ancient people it was significant. It's not surprising that they would apply these terms to temporal events.

We do similar things in our own culture. If I said to you that the last Presidential election was John Kerry's Waterloo. Are you going to interpret that to mean that John Kerry went to Brussels and fought alongside Napoleon? Or if I say that Bush "cleaned Kerry's clock" are you going to assume that George is in the timepiece repair business? Is New York City really a giant apple? Are movie actors really stars in the sky?
Peter was saying that the Spirit had indeed been poured out as per Joel’s prophecy. With regard to the cosmic disturbances, he wasn’t spiritualising them to suggest that they were actually taking pace there and then. I understand him to have been saying that this prophecy was bang on track and that before the coming of the “great and awesome day of the LORD”, the cosmic signs would indeed also take place.
So, you are introducing a 2000+ year gap into Joel's prophecy?

It's clear that Peter, Paul, James, the writer of Hebrews, etc. all believed they were living in the Last Days. I don't think they were mistaken, nor do I think the "Last Days" has gone on for 2000+ years. They were living in a time of tumultous change. Messiah had come to His people but had been rejected and had prophesied judgment. Jesus had fulfilled the Old Covenant and instituted a New Covenant. Things related to the Old Covenant (such as the temple, sacrifices, the priesthood, etc.) were passing away. Pentecost was a big signal of that. 70 A.D. would be another big signal. For the Jews, it was like an eclipse - their sun going dark and their moon turning to blood.

Of course, if you insist and a literal interpretation, we could apply it to the events at Jesus' crucifixion fifty days previous, but I don't think that's what Peter was getting at.
I know from Matthew 24:29-31 that the cosmic signs will not take place until after the great tribulation and before the Parousia of Jesus Christ.


You probably know that, as a Preterist, I think Matthew 24 in it's entirety is referring to events surrounding 70 A.D.

Verses 29-31 use clearly established prophetic language. For example, in Genesis 37:9 Joseph describes a dream to his brothers in which "... the sun and moon and eleven stars were bowing down to me." Verse 10 indicates that Joseph's father clearly understood what the sun, moon and stars symbolized. Revelation 12:1 picks up this same imagery to depict Israel. It's interesting to note that the sun, moon and stars all give light to the earth. In Ecclesistes 12:1-2 the expression, "... while the sun, or the light, or the moon, or the stars, be not darkened..." is used to symbolize prosperous times. I already touched on Isaiah, where for example, the fall of Babylon is described in these terms:
Behold, the day of the Lord is coming,
Cruel, with fury and burning anger,
To make the land a desolation;
And He will exterminate its sinners from it.
For the stars of heaven and their constellations
Will not flash forth their light;
The sun will be dark when it rises,
And the moon will not shed its light.

Isaiah 13:9-10
Ezekiel describes the destruction of Egypt using similar language:
And when I extinguish you,
I will cover the heavens and darken their stars;
I will cover the sun with a cloud
And the moon will not give its light.
All the shining lights in the heavens
I will darken over you
And will set darkness on your land.

Ezekiel 32:7-8
Here's are two interesting ones from Amos referring to judgment upon Israel (which was fulfilled by the Assyrian invasion):
Alas, you who are longing for the day of the Lord,
For what purpose will the day of the Lord be to you?
It will be darkness and not light.

Amos 5:18
"It will come about in that day," declares the Lord God,
"That I shall make the sun go down at noon
And make the earth dark in broad daylight."

Amos 8:9
Additional examples can be found in Is. 24:16, 34:4, Joel 2:10 (which is speaking about a plague of locusts!), 30-31 (which Peter quoted at Pentecost), 3:15-16, Hab 3:6-11, etc.

In Matthew 24, Jesus' hearers would have known very clearly that He was using established prophetic language to speak of impending judgment. Jesus also made it very clear that the impending judgment was coming very soon.

The phrase "coming on the clouds" is also established prophetic language for God's judgment. I can provide scriptural examples if you wish.

Peter's quotation of Amos is consistent with this usage of cosmic language and is quite germane to the matter at hand - that God is rejecting the temple and will soon destroy it altogether. Peter's hearers seem to have gotten the message.
That’s how I understand it. I’ve explained that James was saying that the future situation ‘agreed’ with the present (to them) situation. Actually, the fact that he begins the quote with ‘after this’ may lend more weight to my understanding. He may have been saying that ‘after’ a time where God will take a people out of the Gentiles for His name, He would return and rebuild the tabernacle of David at which time, the Gentiles would be worshipping the LORD. Maybe.
I don't see anything that indicates that James is thinking about a distant future scenario in any way, shape or form. He is dealing with the matter at hand right there and then. The acceptance of Gentiles into the "Israel of God" (to use Paul's term) is monumental. It is a part of the whole tectonic shift from an ethnic Israel to a spiritual Israel.

That's quite fascinating about the tabernacle of David reference in Isaiah. I'll have to take a closer look at that. I must admit though, I've lost track of the point. Jesus is the King, the heir of David. He is already seated upon the throne. He is also the eternal high priest in the true tabernacle. These are all images to speak of something greater than we have language for.

Let's address this issue of replacement theology, which is often used in the form of an invective. The way I've typically seen it used (and had it used against me) does not accurately reflect the viewpoint of those it's used against. I believe that there is a common theme throughout the Old Testament scriptures, which is that of the faithful remnant. That faithful remnant, who kept covenant with God are the true Israel. This is a major theme of Paul's letter to the Romans (if you read it as a complete letter and not just cherry-picked verses).

At the beginning of your last post you said:
I believe that every believing person in all history whether Jew or Gentile has been a de-facto member of the church – the called-out people of God. Thus, believing Jews have always been part of the church.
And without disagreeing with you, I would flip it around to say that every believing person in all history, whether Jew or Gentile, has been a de-facto member of Israel.

The New Testament scriptures make it clear that salvation is not based on ethnicity (the flesh) but on faith. The true Israel is believing Jews and grafted in Gentiles, all supported by the same root. As such, the Gentiles didn't replace the Jews, they joined the believing Jews to become the people of God.

Lastly, the references to 1948 and the nation of Israel have to do with my initial dialog with Aaron that you and I branched off of. In that dialog I had challenged Aaron's view that the establishment of Israel in 1948 was a God-ordained fulfillment of prophecy. I agree with you that, ultimately, Israel (the nation) is in God's hands (as are all nations). I have to wonder though about the ramifications of Zionist Christians who send millions of dollars to a nation that oppressed Christians. Brother Andrew (remember God's Smuggler?) deals tactfully with this issue in his book "Light Force".
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Post by _Ely » Mon May 22, 2006 6:04 pm

Mr Mort, you're an anti-semetic heretic - pure and simple.....


just kidding :D

Actually, I've been listening to a few audio sermons by dispensationalist preachers on preterism and to be honest, I've been quite disappointed and a bit embaressed at some of their efforts. Rather than just dealing with the principles of preterism, they seem intent on saying things like "preterism is a fertile seedbed of anti-semetism" or "preterism ruins our most-cherished doctrines like the future tribulation." I've found it very difficult to come by good quality Dispensational Bible teachers who examine pretrist arguments without stooping to silly emotionalism. What I need is a dispensationalist version of Steve Gregg. Any recommendations anyone? Mort?( :wink: )

Anyhoo. Thanks for your responses. To be honest, at present, I don't have a good way of responding to your comments about cosmic signs being used to describe events in the OT. I'm going to have to look into this because I think this might be one of the strongest arguments for amillism/preterism. :shock:

I believe that there is a common theme throughout the Old Testament scriptures, which is that of the faithful remnant. That faithful remnant, who kept covenant with God are the true Israel. This is a major theme of Paul's letter to the Romans (if you read it as a complete letter and not just cherry-picked verses).
Yes, with you so far..
The true Israel is believing Jews and grafted in Gentiles, all supported by the same root. As such, the Gentiles didn't replace the Jews, they joined the believing Jews to become the people of God.
This is where we depart form one another. I'm yet to be convinced that Gentiles become Israelites through faith in God. I never see Gentiles referred to as Jews Israelites in the NT. In Galatians 6:16 (Israel of God), Romans 2:27-29 (inward Jews) and Philippians 3:3 (the circumcision "who worship God in the spirit") Paul is referring to physical Jews who are believers in Jesus.

I'm still looking into Galatians 3, but my present thoughts are that when Gentiles are called Abraham's 'seed' (and when Abraham is called our 'father' in Romans 4) this is showing that we are partakers of the promise given in Genesis that Abraham would be the father of many nations and that many nations would be blessed in him. I don't see the need to understand this to mean that Gentiles are 'spiritual Jews.' But like I said, give me some time to consider this por favor.

Ely
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Post by _AARONDISNEY » Mon May 22, 2006 6:55 pm

Rom 9:5-6
5 Whose are the fathers, and of whom as concerning the flesh Christ came, who is over all, God blessed for ever. Amen.
6 Not as though the word of God hath taken none effect. For they are not all Israel, which are of Israel:
(KJV)

Rom 2:28-29
28 For he is not a Jew, which is one outwardly; neither is that circumcision, which is outward in the flesh:
29 But he is a Jew, which is one inwardly; and circumcision is that of the heart, in the spirit, and not in the letter; whose praise is not of men, but of God.
(KJV)

Rom 4:12
12 And the father of circumcision to them who are not of the circumcision only, but who also walk in the steps of that faith of our father Abraham, which he had being yet uncircumcised.
(KJV)

Gal 6:16
16 And as many as walk according to this rule, peace be on them, and mercy, and upon the Israel of God.
(KJV)

When I look through these verses that are the main ones in question. I don't necessarily see that a Gentile believer becomes a part of Israel. But what I do seem to see is that a Jewish unbeliever is not considered to be a true "Jew". The Lord intended Israel to be a nation devoted to Him and in His eyes that is what they are. No matter what their bloodline is, if they do not have the faith of Abraham, they are not Jews.

These verses also lend credence to that assumption........


Rev 3:9
9 Behold, I will make them of the synagogue of Satan, which say they are Jews, and are not, but do lie; behold, I will make them to come and worship before thy feet, and to know that I have loved thee.
(KJV)

Rev 2:9
9 I know thy works, and tribulation, and poverty, (but thou art rich) and I know the blasphemy of them which say they are Jews, and are not, but are the synagogue of Satan.
(KJV)


I'd also like to second Ely's request for a good dispensational teacher on internet audio, seriously!! :D I may disagree with Steve's eschatology, but I admire him for putting his teachings on the narrow path for free. His teaching on conditional security and refutation of Calvinism is rock solid and right on!!
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Post by _Mort_Coyle » Mon May 22, 2006 7:12 pm

... you're an anti-semetic heretic...
Better that than an anti-hermetic semi-tick! :?
This is where we depart form one another. I'm yet to be convinced that Gentiles become Israelites through faith in God. I never see Gentiles referred to as Jews Israelites in the NT. In Galatians 6:16 (Israel of God), Romans 2:27-29 (inward Jews) and Philippians 3:3 (the circumcision "who worship God in the spirit") Paul is referring to physical Jews who are believers in Jesus.
This would definitely be a great topic to discuss!

N.T. Wright has an amazing lecture series on Romans entitled "Romans in a Week" that was delivered at Regent Seminary in Vancouver, BC. http://www.regentaudio.net/product_deta ... tem_id=103
Unfortunately, it's not free, but Wright is considered one of today's leading Pauline theologians. He began his in-depth study of Romans 20 years ago by memorizing it in the Greek :shock:

As far as great Dispensationalist teachers (snicker, snicker), I know that Thomas Ice is considered a leading proponent: http://www.raptureme.com/ttcol.html
Who else? Umm, Jack Van Impe? Paul & Jan Crouch? (ok, now I'm being cruel!)
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Post by _Mort_Coyle » Mon May 22, 2006 7:16 pm

... you're an anti-semetic heretic...
Better that than an anti-hermetic semi-tick! :?
This is where we depart form one another. I'm yet to be convinced that Gentiles become Israelites through faith in God. I never see Gentiles referred to as Jews Israelites in the NT. In Galatians 6:16 (Israel of God), Romans 2:27-29 (inward Jews) and Philippians 3:3 (the circumcision "who worship God in the spirit") Paul is referring to physical Jews who are believers in Jesus.
This would definitely be a great topic to discuss!

N.T. Wright has an amazing lecture series on Romans entitled "Romans in a Week" that was delivered at Regent Seminary in Vancouver, BC. http://www.regentaudio.net/product_deta ... tem_id=103
Unfortunately, it's not free, but Wright is considered one of today's leading Pauline theologians. He began his in-depth study of Romans 20 years ago by memorizing it in the Greek :shock:

As far as great Dispensationalist teachers (snicker, snicker), I know that Thomas Ice is considered a leading proponent: http://www.raptureme.com/ttcol.html
Who else? Umm, Jack Van Impe? Paul & Jan Crouch? (ok, now I'm being cruel!)
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