Well hello Mr/Mrs/Miss Conquest...Why was it the "SIGN" of His coming that was asked about? Is it because His disciples understood that it would be some kind of physical/earthly outward manifestation of a spiritual reality?Conquest wrote: It is my understanding there is another view that it doesn't appear you have taken into account, at least I don't see where you make reference to Dan 7:13, 14 in the above verses. How do you know the "coming of the Son of man" in the Olivet discourse isn't tied to Dan 7:13,14 when the Son of man is dipicted coming up to the Ancient of Days?
Conquest
Consider that a sign is representative of something. Were the signs and accompanying wonders following the first pentacost after the resurrection the reality or a "SIGN" pointing to the greater reality? That is the fulfillment of Daniel 7's, "Coming of the Son of Man," TO the Ancient of Days.
Pmike